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tukilala
July 15th, 2009, 03:06 AM
f(n) < g(n) for some n0
is it true that f(n)=O(g(n))?? and why?
D_Drmmr
July 15th, 2009, 03:47 AM
No, consider f(n) = 0.5 * n^3 and g(n) = n^2 and n0 = 1.
Also have a look here (http://www.codeguru.com/forum/showthread.php?t=366302).