
February 23rd, 2013, 11:14 AM
#16
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
>> The potential modulo bias is still there.
*sigh* I can't explain things any better than the links I've already posted. If you don't believe the experts from the Usenet posts I linked to, then there's no point in continuing
gg

February 23rd, 2013, 11:50 AM
#17
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
>> The potential modulo bias is still there.
*sigh* I can't explain things any better than the links I've already posted. If you don't believe the experts from the Usenet posts I linked to, then there's no point in continuing
Well, all links you've supplied only confirm what I'm telling you. The method you've posted doesn't improve on using the 8 rightmost bits of rand() directly. Your detour over double doesn't change anything. Any real solution to this problem involves generating more randomness (like in that Java example I supplied). I just wanted to make that perfectly clear.
Your method converts the MAX_RAND+1 integers to doubles in the 0 to 1 range. This is not really a continuous distribution. It's still MAX_RAND+1 distinct numbers, only now doubles and scaled. When you cast/convert back to the 8 bit integer range you're really performing an implicit modulo 256 operation. It's equivalent to performing the same operation on a rand() integer directly.
If the highest quality is needed the OP should invest in a commersial random number solution and hire an expert to review the statistics part of the application. If that's considered overkill my suggestion is good enougth (and the hokus pokus of your method won't improve on it).
Last edited by nuzzle; February 23rd, 2013 at 12:12 PM.

February 23rd, 2013, 08:17 PM
#18
Re: Generating big random numbers in C

February 25th, 2013, 05:03 AM
#19
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug;2106595I'm no mathematician, and I couldn't find an authoritative answer online. My rand_byte() does return a uniformly distributed number from [0,255
.
it doesn't. it has an underbias for 0. Because of the +0.5 correction, 0 will appear about half as much as any other number.
there is also an underbias for 255, because you shifted that half of 0 into that 255. again 255 occurs about half as much as any other number.
using your code, to properly return a 0255 distribution the rand_byte should be written as
Code:
int rand_byte()
{
return (int)(uniform_deviate(rand()) * 256);
}
besides, if RAND_MAX is a power of 2 minus 1 (which about 99% of the PRNG's are) you don't "need" the inefficient detour to floating point number.
Solve things in fixed point integer math by assuming the PRNG is a fixed point valus with a mantisssa of Nbits (where RAND_MAX = (2^N)1, in the range 0 to 1 exclusive. [0, 1[
Code:
// returns a number in the range 0 to max1
short rng(short max)
{
return (short( ((long)rng*max) >> RAND_BITS ); // RAND_BITS is 15 for c's rand()
}
a version that returns a byte is easy enough to work out from that.
I'm finding it strange that so few sources on RNG's explain this fixed point approach and most go for the inefficient floating point solution.
If those bytes are concatenated, are the resulting bits in that bit string also uniformly distributed? I assumed yes at first, but now I'm not sure.
"probably not"
this will get worse as you extract more bits at a time to chunk into the bigger one.
fewer bits at a time will help, but has the adverse effect of lowering the periodicity of the resulting PRNG even more.
edit: Yes, I realise that by definition of "random", it should, but we're dealing with PSEUDO random sequences here. uniform distribution only counts on a large enough sequence of numbers, Most PRNG's have localised "hotspots" or "artifacts", and when combining those hotspots into a single larger random number, you made the hotspot/artefact worse. This is also why some PRNG's aren't suitable for cryptology or why some aren't good for a monte carlo simulation.
So it "might" work, or might be "good enough" depending on the input prng (rand() is just awful), but making blanket statements of the resulting larger number PRNG won't work well.
No. The code generates a uniform distribution from [0,255] regardless of the value of RAND_MAX  making it portable.
Incorrect. If RAND_MAX is less than 8 bits, you cannot ever produce a uniform distribution that has 2^8 unique values. This is elementary math. The "detour" to a double changes nothing in this, the double will at most evaluate to RAND_MAX unique values.
If you COULD... then the whole problem the OP asks would be pointless, you could just use rand() and assume a new RAND_MAX of whatever size the OP needs to get his bigger range. it works value wise, it's just not uniform. some values will occor multiple times, some will never occur.
So your code can only work if you want to extract fewer bits at a time than RAND_MAX can hold.
>> I don't see what your method improves over my suggestion really.
The method I've shown preserves the uniform distribution (UD) of rand by mapping the [0, RAND_MAX] int UD, to a [0, 1) double UD. Your code simply takes the low order bits and throws the rest away  which destroys the UD.
Wrong, see above.
Your technique does have the merit of using the HIGH bits rather than the LOW bits, which is better. The high bits are more likely to produce a shortened uniform distribution than the lower bits. Explaining this is beyond the scope of this forum. The short version of the story is that while a PRNG is uniform over a large number of values, there tend to be localized "hotspots" over short ranges.
ignoring the "low bits" vs "high bits" issue, which you can work around. both modulo and your apprpoach have the same problem, just localized differently. And it manifests itself if N is not a power of 2.
Suppose you had a rand() that returned numbers in the 07 range (3 bits). And you wanted a random number in the range 02 inclusive
With modulo
0 will result for rand() values 0, 3, 6
1 will result for rand() values 1, 4, 7
2 will result for rand() values 2, 5
The modulo 'clips' part of the rand() range and puts it all in the lower result values. Some values have a 1 higher probability than others.
your solution will have the same problem (it will bias some resulting values by 1 more than others), but instead of biassing the lower range results, the bias will be spread out over the entire range.
Either of the 2 systems could have advantages depending on what you use the rand() for. One method is not 'better' than the other.
Last edited by OReubens; February 25th, 2013 at 05:18 AM.

February 25th, 2013, 11:42 AM
#20
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
>> Because of the +0.5 correction ...
You are correct. Simply multiplying by 256 is the right thing to do and will give a true uniform distribution over [0, 255]. It was easy to confirm as well:
Code:
size_t freq[256] = {0};
for (;;)
if (freq[rand_byte()]++ == RAND_MAX)
break;
for (int n = 0; n < 256; ++n)
printf("%u\n", freq[n]);
>> I'm finding it strange that so few sources on RNG's explain this fixed point approach and most go for the inefficient floating point solution
I'm guessing because it's nonportable since it requires RAND_MAX=(2^N)1, which isn't mandated by the standard (although I haven't seen an implementation where that isn't the case).
>>> If those bytes are concatenated, are the resulting bits in that bit string also uniformly distributed? I assumed yes at first, but now I'm not sure.
>> "probably not"
The answer is "yes" if you have a uniform distribution on the range [0, R] where R=(2^N)1. Since the bytes are uniformly distributed on [0, 255] (not using the bad +0.5 code) then the resulting bits in the resulting bit string are also uniformly distributed. Note that I'm not making any claims about the resulting integer when concatenating only 4 of those bytes.
I asked for help on this one here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!to..._E/discussion
>>>  making it portable.
>> Incorrect. If RAND_MAX is less than 8 bits ...
The "If" is irrelevant thanks to the standard:
Originally Posted by ISO/IEC 9899:1999 (E)
7.20.2.1  5
The value of the RAND_MAX macro shall be at least 32767.
>> Wrong, see above. Your technique ...
>> both ... have the same problem... And it manifests itself if N is not a power of 2.
Are you saying that for a uniformly distributed integer range of [0, R], you can only map that to a [0, 1) floatingpoint range uniformly iff R=(2^N)1? That doesn't make sense to me. The limiting factor seems to be the number of bits used to store the mantissa (assuming R>=0x7fff).
Or are you talking about applying the uniform_deviate() technique to generate uniform numbers greater than R? If so, I've never claimed that  and I agree that doesn't work.
>> One method is not 'better' than the other.
I'm not sure what's being compared... I've only compared random byte generation. I claim that the (fixed) rand_byte() is superior because not only are the values uniformly distributed, but the bits themselves are too.
gg
Last edited by Codeplug; February 25th, 2013 at 11:45 AM.

February 26th, 2013, 08:09 AM
#21
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
>> I'm finding it strange that so few sources on RNG's explain this fixed point approach and most go for the inefficient floating point solution
I'm guessing because it's nonportable since it requires RAND_MAX=(2^N)1, which isn't mandated by the standard (although I haven't seen an implementation where that isn't the case).
Well I wasn't referring to rand() specifically which is indeed not guaranteed to be a power of 2 minus 1 (although i've never seen a different one in any of the many compilers I used). Which is also why there is a RAND_MAX defined and not a RAND_BITS.
But even in other resources dealing with other PRNG's that can only work on (2^n)1 type ranges, they use the detour to a double. I've even seen a case where they made a 144bit PRNG, then had a whole custom library included to handle floating point values with a 144bit mantissa, only to extract integer random values.
>>> If those bytes are concatenated, are the resulting bits in that bit string also uniformly distributed? I assumed yes at first, but now I'm not sure.
>> "probably not"
The answer is "yes" if you have a uniform distribution on the range [0, R] where R=(2^N)1. Since the bytes are uniformly distributed on [0, 255] (not using the bad +0.5 code) then the resulting bits in the resulting bit string are also uniformly distributed. Note that I'm not making any claims about the resulting integer when concatenating only 4 of those bytes.
Like I said... "in theory" if your RNG is perfectly uniformly distributed. Then Yes, that's part of the definition of things after all.
In practice, you deal with PSEUDO RNG's, and things aren't "perfectly uniformly distributed" there. Over a large enough series of random numbers, yes, but in short sequences, you tend to find this may not be the case. Most PRNG's have some form of hotspots or artefacts that make them not "perfectly" uniformly distributed.
rand() which is typically implemented as a linear congruential generator is notoriously bad for this, it causes an artefact effect called "hyperplanes" which is caused by the high amount of serial correlation in how it works.
I would certainly not expect rand() bits packed together to form a bigger number to end up being a uniform distribution.
>> Wrong, see above. Your technique ...
>> both ... have the same problem... And it manifests itself if N is not a power of 2.
Are you saying that for a uniformly distributed integer range of [0, R], you can only map that to a [0, 1) floatingpoint range uniformly iff R=(2^N)1? That doesn't make sense to me. The limiting factor seems to be the number of bits used to store the mantissa (assuming R>=0x7fff).
Or are you talking about applying the uniform_deviate() technique to generate uniform numbers greater than R? If so, I've never claimed that  and I agree that doesn't work.
Not quite. I may have messed things up by using 'N' again. though
What I meant is if you have a random distribution from 0R exclusive, then neither your method of multiplying and clipping nor modulo will give a uniform distribution over 0M if M is not a factor of R (R % M != 0)
some numbers will have a probablity of R/M while some will have a probability of (R/M)+1.
Again, this is elementary math.
The methods are different though, with modulo all the lower R%M numbers will have the +1
in your method, the numbers with 1 more will be spread out.
You can correct for this deficiency by managing an error factor, but it's rarely applied because most apps don't need that extra uniformity.
> One method is not 'better' than the other.
I'm not sure what's being compared... I've only compared random byte generation. I claim that the (fixed) rand_byte() is superior because not only are the values uniformly distributed, but the bits themselves are too.
I was comparing one method of reducing range to less than RAND_MAX+1 (and somethign different than a factor of RAND_MAX+1). == see the bit of text before this. Multiplication and clipping vs modulo.
Other than that. your rand_byte (by extracting high bits through multiplication) is not technically better than using a %256. Given the nature of things however, you get the benefit of using the high bits, which is superior because of how PRNG artefacts occur. Even with an M different than a factor of RAND_MAX+1, both are technically equally good, but different (= the +1 all in the front numbers or spread out).
Your claim also has no proof, "superior because values are uniformly distributed". How is your method more uniformly distributed than the modulo approach. You seem to be thinking that because of the transition to a floating point that this increases extra uniformity, it doesn't. you will have exactly RAND_MAX unique possible values in your double. Just as much as rand() itself returns. moduloing rand() or multiply+clipping rand()/(RAND_MAX+1) does nor prefer one over the other (assuming rand() would be perfectly distributed without artefacts, which it isn't).
From a pure technical/efficiency POV. The modulo approach is inferior because division is less efficient than multiplication+clip (or shift).
But your current implementation with using a double of course negates that entirely.
It wouldn't surprise me at all btw, that your new corrected rand_byte() returns exactly the highest 8 significant bits of rand() making it equivalent to
Code:
int rand_byte()
{
return rand()>>7;
}
Last edited by OReubens; February 26th, 2013 at 08:20 AM.

February 26th, 2013, 10:19 AM
#22
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
>> What I meant is if you have a random distribution from 0R exclusive, then neither your method of multiplying and clipping nor modulo will give a uniform distribution over 0M if M is not a factor of R (R % M != 0)
I don't understand why it being an even "factor" has anything to do with it since we're dealing with floatingpoint math. What is this "multiplying and clipping" that occurs in floating point math? Are the bits used for the mantissa not sufficient for dividing (M / (RAND_MAX + 1.0))? Are you saying that imperfect representations of IEEE 754 are causing some problem?
>> You seem to be thinking that because of the transition to a floating point that this increases extra uniformity
No, nothing "extra". Only that whatever uniformity that rand() provides will be preserved.
>> you will have exactly RAND_MAX unique possible values in your double.
I agree, and that's the whole point. The resulting floatingpoint range of values has the same distribution as rand(). The distribution is not lost completely.
>> moduloing rand() or multiply+clipping rand()/(RAND_MAX+1) does nor prefer one over the other
You're really confusing me, as the math is quite simple  (M / (RAND_MAX + 1.0))  divide M by RAND_MAX+1 "buckets" and store the result into a double. So we're just at the mercy of double's precision and any IEEE error that's propagated with further math on the result. Still in my mind, one is obviously better than the other  one method preserves rand()'s distribution  the other does not.
>> (assuming rand() would be perfectly distributed without artefacts, which it isn't).
Artifacts are besides the point. We have a range and distribution described as uniform. What math is required to preserve that distribution? What math would destroy that distribution? If your formula doesn't include RAND_MAX, then you're not working with the distribution, you're working against it.
>> your rand_byte (by extracting high bits through multiplication) is not technically better than using a %256.
Still confused. You've implied more than once now that I'm somehow not using all the bits. How does floatingpoint multiplication/division not use all the bits?
>> It wouldn't surprise me at all btw, that ...
I'm not surprised, given it's a round trip through two ranges R where R=(2^N)1.
What I want to work out, is if R isn't a nice power of 2 minus 1  then would the uniform_deviate() method still preserve the distribution. I say "yes", to the extent that double's representation allows.
gg

February 26th, 2013, 11:49 AM
#23
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
I don't understand why it being an even "factor" has anything to do with it since we're dealing with floatingpoint math.
in general, given a map f:A>B between two finite sets A and B, f sends a uniform probability distribution on A to a uniform probability distribution on B if and only if all preimages f^1(b) with b in B have the same number of elements. Which implies that N divides M, where M is the number of elements in A and N is the number of elements in B.
Now, take your map sending the int rand() range [0,RAND_MAX] to the floating point range and then again to the output int range [0,N]. So, whatever the double detour result is, you'll always end up with a non uniform distribution if N does not divide RAND_MAX+1. The only thing you "gain" is an apparent spread out of the nonuniformity.
Last edited by superbonzo; February 26th, 2013 at 11:54 AM.
Reason: typos

February 26th, 2013, 03:12 PM
#24
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
>> ... if and only if ...
That's Greek to me. Does it have a name? Or where can I read about it more?
Proof jargon aside, isn't "uniformity" just a subjective measurement in this case, including rand()'s distribution?
>> The only thing you "gain" is an apparent spread out of the nonuniformity.
The math is obvious attempting to preserve the distribution as best it can. Is there a better way to attempt to preserve the distribution?
Here's a test of mapping [0, RAND_MAX] to [0, 300]:
Code:
// according to experts, this preserves the distribution of rand "perfectly"
int nrand(int n)
{
const int bucket_size = RAND_MAX / n;
int r;
do
r = rand() / bucket_size;
while (r >= n);
return r;
}
int rand_300_a()
{
return (int)(uniform_deviate(rand()) * 300);
}
int rand_300_b()
{
return nrand(300);
}
void rand_max_sample()
{
FILE *f = fopen("rand_max.txt", "w");
if (!f)
return;
size_t n;
for (n = 0; n < RAND_MAX; ++n)
fprintf(f, "%u\n", rand());
fclose(f);
}
void rand_300_a_sample()
{
FILE *f = fopen("300a.txt", "w");
if (!f)
return;
size_t n;
for (n = 0; n < RAND_MAX; ++n)
fprintf(f, "%u\n", rand_300_a());
fclose(f);
}
void rand_300_b_sample()
{
FILE *f = fopen("300b.txt", "w");
if (!f)
return;
size_t n;
for (n = 0; n < RAND_MAX; ++n)
fprintf(f, "%u\n", rand_300_b());
fclose(f);
}
int main()
{
const int seed = 12345;
srand(seed);
rand_max_sample();
srand(seed);
rand_300_a_sample();
srand(seed);
rand_300_b_sample();
return 0;
}
Calculating the skewness of each set gives: 0.00218510057226509, 0.00220362015632128, and 0.00273418316416069 respectively.
The kurtosis of each set is: 1.19204957957879, 1.19206215018176, and 1.19290751126681 respectively.
So by those measures of "uniform'ness", my subjective response is that the distribution has been preserved.
Is there some other mapping other than 300 that will show the breakdown in uniformity?
Or perhaps the best question to ask at this point is: What does the C code look like that best preserves the distribution of rand() when mapping it to a smaller range? Does that code look any different than what's already been shown?
gg

February 26th, 2013, 05:41 PM
#25
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
Proof jargon aside, isn't "uniformity" just a subjective measurement in this case, including rand()'s distribution?
no, technicalities aside, for finite sets a uniform probability distribution is just that assigning a constant probability to each outcome: 1/2 for each face of a coin, 1/6 for each face of a die, etc ... . Of course, this has little to do with assessing the actual quality of a pnrg.
Originally Posted by Codeplug
That's Greek to me
nontechnically speaking, let's say you have a source of "random" integer numbers following a uniform probability distribution in the range [0,N), hence the probability of each number 0<= i <N is 1/N. Now, consider a fixed function F(i) from [0,N) to another range of integers [0,M). Now you have a new source of random numbers with values in the range [0,M) by applying F to the original source. The probability that the new source emits a number 0<= j <M equals the probability that the original source emits an integer i such as j = F(i), that is equals (1/N)*("the number of integers i such as j = F(i)"). Therefore, if the new source is uniformly distributed ( = the probability that it emits a j is constant and equals 1/M ) then M must divide N. If not, the resulting probability distribution will not be uniform, that is some integers in [0,M) will have higher probability than others, whatever the function F is ( in your case, the mapping int>double>int ).
Originally Posted by Codeplug
Here's a test of mapping [0, RAND_MAX] to [0, 300]
for the biased generator, the probabilities of each outcome will oscillates in the order of 1/300 + 1/RAND_MAX, hence you'll need to collect ~ 10^6/10^7 samples for some pair of fixed biased outcomes to start observing the difference in the frequencies directly. So, an hardly noticeable effect anyway.
Originally Posted by Codeplug
Is there some other mapping other than 300 that will show the breakdown in uniformity?
the simplest example is to map the range [1,3] to the range [1,2]. The only possible probability distributions on [1,2] resulting by a mapping from a uniformly distributed probability on [1,3] are { (1,0), (0,1), (2/3,1/3), (1/3,2/3) }; as you can see, none of them is uniform.
Originally Posted by Codeplug
Or perhaps the best question to ask at this point is: What does the C code look like that best preserves the distribution of rand() when mapping it to a smaller range? Does that code look any different than what's already been shown?
what do you mean by "preserves the distribution of rand()" ? regarding a generic range random engine implementation you can take a look at boost.random or the new std <random>.

March 1st, 2013, 07:53 AM
#26
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
I don't understand why it being an even "factor" has anything to do with it since we're dealing with floatingpoint math. What is this "multiplying and clipping" that occurs in floating point math? Are the bits used for the mantissa not sufficient for dividing (M / (RAND_MAX + 1.0))? Are you saying that imperfect representations of IEEE 754 are causing some problem?
No, i'm saying that putting it in a double does not make it 'more uniform' than the integer.
rand() returns RAND_MAX unique integers. The returned integers are 'assumed' to be a uniform distribution (but it's an LCG, so it isn't really perfect in that).
double d = rand() / RAND_MAX;
will give you... RAND_MAX unique double values (this is basic math stuff here). Stuffing them in a double does not magically introduce MORE randomness, or more uniformity, nor does it change from a finite (RAND_MAX) set of numbers to something other than an finite set.
Calculating on a finite set can only reduce the set, it can never increase the set.
if I flip a coin, I can only get heads or tails with a presumed 50% chance of each.
If I stuff this value in a double, that double will have 2 possible values, the "heads" value, or the "tails" value, depending on how I made my calculation from heads/tails towards a double. This double will not magically start holding every possible double value from minus infinity to plus infinity.
So if you agree up to here... Then what your code is doing (multiplying by 256 and clipping) is favouring the "high" bits of rand(), while modulo 256 favours the low bits of rand()
Now how does this factoring go in here ? Again let me illustrate with a simple example. Suppose you had a regular unloaded 6 sided die (a perfect cube), but numbered 05 instead of 16. you can roll any value from 0 to 5 with an equal probability.
Now suppose I only want to have values 0 to 3... how do I "solve this" for the 6 values I can roll.
Your solution
(die_roll() / 6) * 4 and clip.
roll 0 > (0/6)*4 = 0
roll 1 > (1/6)*4 = 0
roll 2 > (2/6)*4 = 1
roll 3 > (3/6)*4 = 2
roll 4 > (4/6)*4 = 2
roll 5 > (5/6)*4 = 3
Oops... your perfect 05 distribution when changing to another range suddenly isn't so uniform anymore. As demonstrated, some values occur 1 times more than others, and these values are 'spread out' over the 03 range
Repeat the same for modulo, and the same thing happens, some values occur 1 more than others, but now all the +1 values will be up front.
Both methods are valid for reducing the 06 range to 03 depending on the needs, either mathod has advantages and disadvantages...
Now. if you were wanting a range that is a factor of 6 (say I want 2, or 3 values), then you end up with a uniform distribution over the smaller range.
is the above a problem. again... "it depends"... As the range you're interested in gets closer to RAND_MAX, this +1 effect gets worse and worse.
Suppose I was interested in a range of 032700. rand() has enough bits, and both multiply+clip and modulo will return a range.
but 68 values will appear twice as much as the other 32700. which ones, depends on the method use.
The above is one of the main reasons why you want "large bits" PRNG's. Not so much because you want big random numbers, but because you want to reduce the +1 effect of wanting a range that isn't a factor of whatever your RAND_MAX is.
you want R%M / R to be as small as you can. you achieve that by either getting a perfect factor (in which case this returns 0) or you want M to be as small as possible (not feasible since that's what you want to get afterall), so the only other way out is making R as large as possible (big number PRNG's are always better, even if you don't need values that high). THey also benefit from larger periodicity.
>> moduloing rand() or multiply+clipping rand()/(RAND_MAX+1) does nor prefer one over the other
You're really confusing me, as the math is quite simple  (M / (RAND_MAX + 1.0))  divide M by RAND_MAX+1 "buckets" and store the result into a double. So we're just at the mercy of double's precision and any IEEE error that's propagated with further math on the result. Still in my mind, one is obviously better than the other  one method preserves rand()'s distribution  the other does not.
No, you are NOT at the mercy of double's precision, double has MUCH MUCH more precision than the RAND_MAX different values.
This way of doing things with a detour to a double does not make a BETTER resulting distribution than directly moduloing rand() or fixedpointintegermath multiplying rand() and clipping.
The only real difference is that modulo extracts the low bits, and the other 2 extract the high bits. If it were a perfect distribution, either is equally good, and you can adjust the formula for all 3 to achieve the opposite effect if you so desired.
>> (assuming rand() would be perfectly distributed without artefacts, which it isn't).
Artifacts are besides the point. We have a range and distribution described as uniform. What math is required to preserve that distribution? What math would destroy that distribution? If your formula doesn't include RAND_MAX, then you're not working with the distribution, you're working against it
As described above.
Changing a UD over 0X into a UD over 0Y where Y<X and all outcomes are integers. can ONLY
break the UD if X%Y != 0
preserve the UD is X%Y==0
Again, elementary math at play here.
The formula doesn't NEED to have RAND_MAX in it. If RAND_MAX is a power of 21. If so, you can also work with or infer the amount of bits involved (which is what the fixed point multiplication+shift does). With modulo you don't even need anything, you just extract as many of the low bits as are adequate. How many bits there really are aren't of any concern (assuming there's enough of them of course).
Again, whatever method, ending up with a UD assumes R%M=0 if this isn't the case, either method introduces the same inacuracy, just over a different set of numbers.
Note: You CAN turn PRNG UD over 0X into a UD over 0Y with integers by managing an errorfactor, but what this really does deep down is changing the nature of the PRNG and making it a PRNG over 0X' with X' > X and X'%Y ==0
>> your rand_byte (by extracting high bits through multiplication) is not technically better than using a %256.
Still confused. You've implied more than once now that I'm somehow not using all the bits. How does floatingpoint multiplication/division not use all the bits?
it uses all the bits in the double.
but you throw away a chunk of bits when you convert the double to a int. This isn't technically any different from what you do with modulo.
>> It wouldn't surprise me at all btw, that ...
I'm not surprised, given it's a round trip through two ranges R where R=(2^N)1.
What I want to work out, is if R isn't a nice power of 2 minus 1  then would the uniform_deviate() method still preserve the distribution. I say "yes", to the extent that double's representation allows.
your approach with a double is (one of) the correct methods to use if RAND_MAX is not a power of 2 minus 1.
then again. So is using modulo
and so is using fixed point math, the fixed point becomes less efficient of course since the shift turns into a divide.
Code:
int rng(int max)
{
return (int)rand() * max % (RAND_MAX+1);
}
It's obvious enough to work out that when RAND_MAX IS a powerof 2 minus 1 that the % can be turned into a shift.
Yes this preserves distribution. Again, if max is a factor of RAND_MAX+1, if it isn't then the result isn't a UD.
Last edited by OReubens; March 1st, 2013 at 08:04 AM.

March 1st, 2013, 02:16 PM
#27
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
>> nontechnically speaking ...
Thanks for the English version. The thought experiment of reducing [1,3] to [1,2] (or [0,5] to [0,3]) is what I'm used to seeing when explaining why a mathematically perfect UD can not be preserved. What I was hoping to extract is that the subjective distribution can still be maintained despite that  when using the proper method.
>>> Is there some other mapping other than 300 that will show the breakdown in uniformity?
>> Suppose I was interested in a range of 032700... but 68 values will appear twice as much as the other 32700.
Confirmed via code  68 outliers occurred twice as much. Thanks for giving me a number that "shows the breakdown".
Long story short, only nrand() is portable and maintains the distribution "perfectly"  by some definition (I'm quoting usenet).
Code:
// return a random integer in the range [0, n)
int nrand(int n)
{
if (n <= 0  n > RAND_MAX)
return 1; // C++: throw domain_error("Argument to nrand is out of range");
const int bucket_size = RAND_MAX / n;
int r;
do r = rand() / bucket_size;
while (r >= n);
return r;
}
gg

March 2nd, 2013, 02:41 AM
#28
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug
What I was hoping to extract is that the subjective distribution can still be maintained despite that  when using the proper method.
Note that the finiteness of the range is what forbids the preservation of uniformity and what makes your double based solution non UD, in general. For example, your code above is essentially equivalent to rejecting all rand() results not in the target range. Hence, in probability theory, your function "nrand" would be modeled by a map [0,RAND_MAX]^infinity>[0,n), where the map domain is made of infinitely many products of the source range ( technically, a direct limit of probability spaces ).

March 2nd, 2013, 04:01 PM
#29
Re: Generating big random numbers in C

March 4th, 2013, 08:46 AM
#30
Re: Generating big random numbers in C
Originally Posted by Codeplug;2107741Long story short, only nrand() is portable [I
and[/I] maintains the distribution "perfectly"  by some definition (I'm quoting usenet).
It's one method of reducing a UD...
This preserves the uniform distribution. It doesn't preserve all the random behaviour. And it definately doesn't preserve periodicity (it throws away some of it).
This approach is simple, but it's in a loop and could have a rather nasty worst case. Suppose I wanted numbers from 116400, bucket size would be just 1. And it be needing to throw away about half of the generated numbers.
This could have bad consequences for performance (nrand() has unpredictable duration).
It also has 2 divides, which can also be really bad if you have random numbers with more bits than your cpu can handle and need a software "very large integer" class.
It has the benefit of being "simplistic" though. Which isn't necessarily all bad
There are other approaches to achieve this with advantages and disadvantages of their own.
The thing to realise here...
If your PRNG has enough bits, then the "+1 on some numbers" will be hidden in the statistical "noise". More often than not, this is a prefered way of dealing with it. Also know that C's rand() is horrible for just about anything.
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