I can understand how the Intermediate Value Theorem would solve the problem, but Rolle's Theorem deals with the derivatives of functions. I am not sure how that would solve the problem. If you mean to say that you could use Rolle's Theorem to derive the Intermediate Value Theorem (I'll have to trust you on this. I have only seen Rolle's Theorem expressed as a special case of the Mean Value Theorem) that would then solve the problem, then I would say that sounds a bit masachistic. ;)
- Kevin
